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000-046 exam dumps

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Related exams :70-680 exam and 3M0-330 exam

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cisco press 642 901

Exam Description
The Building Scalable Cisco Internetworks (BSCI 642-901) is a qualifying exam for the Cisco Certified Network Professional CCNP®, Cisco Certified Design Professional CCDP®, and Cisco Certified Internetwork Professional CCIP™ certifications. The BSCI 642-901 exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to use advanced IP addressing and routing in implementing scalability for Cisco certification ISR routers connected to LANs and WANs. The exam covers topics on Advanced IP Addressing, Routing Principles, Multicast Routing, IPv6, Manipulating Routing Updates, Configuring basic BGP, Configuring EIGRP, OSPF, and IS-IS.

Exam   :  Cisco 642-901
Title    :  BSCI - Building Scaleable Cisco Internetworks
1. If a metric is not specified for routes that are redistributed into OSPF, the default metric that is assigned to the routes is 20, except for redistributed BGP routes. What is the metric that is assigned to redistributed BGP routes?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 200
Answer: B

2. Into which two types of areas would an area border router (ABR) inject a default route? (Choose two.)
A. the autonomous system of a different interior gateway protocol (IGP)
B. area 0
C. totally stubby
D. NSSA
E. stub
F. the autonomous system of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP)
Answer: CE

3. If no metric is specified for the routes being redistributed into IS-IS, what metric value is assigned to the routes?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 20
Answer: A

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the 6.6.6.0/24 prefix?
A. If another path advertises the 6.6.6.0/24 path and has the default local preference, that path is more preferred.
B. The command neighbor send-community is configured on BGP neighbor 10.10.23.3.
C. The route 10.10.23.3 is not being advertised to other BGP neighbors.
D. Route 6.6.6.0/24 is learned by an IBGP peer.
Answer: B

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements accurately describe the result of applying the exhibited route map? (Choose three.)
A. The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes with tag 6 set.
B. The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes.
C. The map redistributes into EIGRP all routes that match the pfx prefix list and the five metric values40000, 1000, 255, 1, and 1500.
D. The map prohibits the redistribution of all external OSPF routes with tag 6 set.
E. All routes that do no match clauses 10 and 20 of the route map are redistributed with their tags set to 8.
F. The map permits the redistribution of all type 1 external OSPF routes.
Answer: AEF

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000-355 questions and answers

000-355 Exam
iseries system administration v5r2
Exam Number/Code : 000-355
Exam Name : iseries system administration v5r2
Questions and Answers : 110 Q&As
Update Time: 2009-09-30
Price: $ 120.00

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1. Users are reporting long response time delays in transactions that previously would run with sunscald
response. The system administrator knows these transactions are RPG IV-SQL based programs. Which of
the following would be the first set in determining the problems.
A. Use Management Central to start a job monitor for system and select the SQL submonitor display.
B. Use iSeries Navigator, SQL Performance Monitor to conllect and analyze the SQL performance of the
jobs.
C. Start debug on one of the on-line jobs and use Performance Explorer to analyze the jobs database
access plan.
D. Use iSeries Navigator to create a database map of the tables used in the transactions and watch for
high I/O rates.
Answer: B
2. Using the example below, what is the cumulative PTF level of the system?
Display PTF status.
System: ANYSYS.
Product ID………….. 5722999
IPL source…………… ## MACH#B
elease of base option ……..V5R1M0.LOO.
PTF IPL
Opt ID Status Action.
TL02134 Temporarily applied None.
TL02071 Permanently applied None.
TL01226 Superseded None.
RE01066 Permanently Applied None.
QLL2924 Permanently Applied None.
MF29379 Permanently Applied None.
MF29287 Permanently Applied None.
A. TL02071
B. TL02134
C. RE01066
D. MF29379
Answer: B
3. Which of the following should be considered when preparing for a release upgrade?
A. User changes made to IBM supplied commands.
B. Valid license information for the current release.
C. Presence of user libraries after QSYS in the system library list.
E r t i n s i d e
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D. Installation of the latest cumulative package for the current release.
Answer: A
4. Job description FREDJOBD has public authority of USE. This job description specifies that jobs run
under user profile FRED. Which has public authority EXCLUDE*. Use profile SUE is user class USER* with
default special authorities and does not have specific authority to use profile FRED.
User which security levels would user profile SUE be able to successfully submit a job using PREDJOBD
with the intent to run the job under user profile FRED?
A. At 20 only.
B. At 20 and 30.
C. At 20, 30, and 40.
D. At 20,30,40, and 50.
Answer: B
5. Which fo the following commands will save all objects in the IFS?
A. SAV
B. SAVDLO
C. SAVLIB “IFS”
D. SAVLIB NONSYS.
Answer: A

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000-102 study materials

Test 000-102: High Availability for AIX - Technical Support and Administration
Test information:
Number of questions: 78
Time allowed in minutes: 120
Required passing score: 56%
Test languages: English
 
Note: There are 78 scored items and 3 unscored items.
 
Sample / Assessment test:
 Test your knowledge prior to taking the test. 
 
Related  IBM certifications:
 IBM Certified Systems Expert - High Availability for AIX Technical Support and Administration

000-102 Objectives
Planning (18%)

Use online planning worksheet
Design a cluster with suitable hardware and to eliminate SPOFs
Identify need for IPAT and which method of IPAT is approriate
Evaluate cluster security requirements
Determine interdependencies of cluster components
Determine other application requirements for cluster integration
Determine AIX pre-reqs (e.g. IP and network configuration, host file configuration, software version and components, storage components, OS level, required filesets, MPIO)
Identify when XD or Cross-site LVM may be required
Plan a cluster within a virtualized environment
Installation and Configuration (24%)

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000-102 information

Test 000-102: High Availability for AIX - Technical Support and Administration
Test information:
Number of questions: 78
Time allowed in minutes: 120
Required passing score: 56%
Test languages: English
 
Note: There are 78 scored items and 3 unscored items.
 
Sample / Assessment test:
 Test your knowledge prior to taking the test. 
 
Related  IBM certifications:
 IBM Certified Systems Expert - High Availability for AIX Technical Support and Administration

000-102 Objectives
Planning (18%)

Use online planning worksheet
Design a cluster with suitable hardware and to eliminate SPOFs
Identify need for IPAT and which method of IPAT is approriate
Evaluate cluster security requirements
Determine interdependencies of cluster components
Determine other application requirements for cluster integration
Determine AIX pre-reqs (e.g. IP and network configuration, host file configuration, software version and components, storage components, OS level, required filesets, MPIO)
Identify when XD or Cross-site LVM may be required
Plan a cluster within a virtualized environment
Installation and Configuration (24%)

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000-102 exam

1. An administrator wants to install Web SMIT on a node that is not part of a cluster. Which PowerHA fileset provides this function?
A. cluster.sysmgt.wsm
B. cluster.es.client.wsm
C. cluster.es.server.websm
D. cluster.sysmgt.websm.rteWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: B   

2. A customer has a resource group rg1 configured on a two node cluster with the following policies:
The customer has observed the following scenarios as nodes join the cluster during cluster start up.
Scenario 1
Node1 joins cluster as first node - rg1 is acquired by Node1
Node2 joins cluster as second node - rg1 is moved from Node1 to Node2
Scenario 2
Node2 joins cluster as first node - rg1 is acquired by Node2
Node1 joins cluster as second node - rg1 remains on Node2
Which of the following is the reason for this behavior?
A. rg1 is configured with a delayed fallback timer
B. Settling time policy has not been configured for rg1
C. Node1 does not have sufficient resources to support rg1
D. Node2 is the first in the 'Default Node Priority' list for resource group rg1WArialTimes New RomanCourier NewZ
Answer: D   

3. An administrator is configuring an application monitor. Upon encountering an unrecoverable error the administrator does not want the resource group to failover.
How can the application monitor be configured to achieve this?
A. Configure the application monitor with a restart count of 0
B. Configure the application monitor with a monitor mode of Notify
C. Configure the application monitor with a notify method of Monitor
D. Configure the application monitor with a failure action of NotifyWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: D   

4. When does the Online Planning Worksheet tool run a validation?
A. When loading and activating a definition file into an inactive cluster
B. When exporting a definition to a cluster node or saving a definition file
C. When importing a definition from an active cluster or saving a definition file
D. When loading a definition into an active cluster or synchronizing a definition fileWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: C   

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HP HP0-S21 exam objections

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  • Exam Number/Code : HP0-S21
  • Exam Name : Integrating and Managing HP BladeSystem in the Enterprise
  • Questions and Answers : 66 Q&As
  • Update Time: 2009-10-26
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what is jk0-016

I am very pleased to asy that I have passed jk0-016 with an 855. And this exam will updated in Certinside today!

JK0-016 Exam
CompTIA Network+(2009 Edition) Exam
Exam Number/Code : JK0-016
Exam Name : CompTIA Network+(2009 Edition) Exam
Questions and Answers : 120 Q&As
Update Time: 2009-11-2
Price: $ 185.00

Updated CompTIA Certification Exams Available New versions of CompTIA Network+ and CompTIA Security+ are now available.

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The new version of the CompTIA Security+ exam is now available for corporate, individual and Education to Careers (E2C) customers. The new CompTIA Security+ exam code for E2C users is JK0-015.  The updated CompTIA Network+ exam is now available for corporate and individual customers, and the E2C version of the exam (exam code JK0-016) will be available in mid-February.

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emc e20-097

Exam Number :E20-097
EMC Technology Foundations—Backup and Recovery

Duration :90 Minutes Approximately 60 Questions

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Exam Description

The 2006 EMC Technology Foundations – Backup and Recovery Exam (E20-097) is a qualifying exam for the EMC Proven Professional Backup and Recovery tracks for Technology Architects and Implementation Engineers. [The 2006 EMC Technology Foundations (E20-040) exam is also a qualifying exam for the Backup and Recovery tracks].
This exam requires the successful candidate to be able to describe the architecture, theory of operations, features and technical value of EMC’s offering; including backup and recovery concepts and considerations, NetWorker software; NAS hardware and software; and replication software.

Exam Topics
Specific topics likely to be found on the exam include:
Backup and Recovery Fundamentals
• Recognize basic Backup procedures and terminology
• Define the different backup types
• Describe Generic Backup Architecture

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70-536 VB

70-536VB Exam
TS:MS.NET Framework 2.0-Application Develop Foundation
Exam Number/Code : 70-536VB
Exam Name : TS:MS.NET Framework 2.0-Application Develop Foundation
Questions and Answers : 99 Q&As
Update Time: 2009-10-27
Price: $ 100.00

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HP0-S18 exam answers

Exam   :  HP HP0-S18

Title    :  Implementing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers

1. Which drive technology should you recommend for a customer who wants a small form factor, at a lower cost per gigabyte?
A. SATA
B. FC
C. PATA
D. SAS
Answer: A

2. A customer is running SUSE Linux Enterprise Server. Which Linux tool would you use to determine if the memory system is bottlenecked?
A. vmstat
B. iostat
C. mstat
D. memconf
Answer: A

3. Which advantage does Hyper Threading Technology offer?
A. increases the number of execution units in CPUs
B. simultaneously executes different tasks using shared hardware resources
C. improves processor memory interaction
D. increases CPU clock speed operations
Answer: B

4. Which HP Care Pack service is included in Hardware Support?
A. 2-hour response time
B. next business day response time
C. system health checks
D. software product updates
Answer: B

5. What are the main features of PCI Express as compared to PCI-X? (Select two.)
A. point-to-point connections
B. increased bandwidth with parallel bit data transfer
C. plug & play technology
D.multiple lanes that are combined to increase bandwidth
E. full backwards compatibility with PCI Standard
Answer: AD

6. Which features are common to Fibre Channel and SAS technology? (Select three.)
A. dual port serial storage interface
B. supports external cable lengths of up to 15 meters
C. full duplex transfer
D. compatible framing structure
E. same number of supported devices
Answer: ACD

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IBM 000-974 exam detials

Test 000-974: Power Systems Technical Support for i 
 
Overview
The IBM Certified Specialist - Power Systems Technical Support for i is the key technical liaison between the customer, the Power Family solution sales person representing the IBM product line, and IBM.
By acting as the key technical resource, the Specialist works determines design and implementation requirements for the solution.  The Specialist should be able to design and install systems of varying size and complexity and use tools like SPT, HMC, and other tools native to IBM i (e.g. System i Director, Management Central).
This specialist has detailed technical knowledge about the IBM Power Systems products, IBM i technologies and related solutions, as well as the skills to architect solutions which address customer requirements.  The Specialist can perform competitive analyses, translate technical requirements into customer solutions, solve technical problems, and describe Power Systems strategy and solutions, business trends and directions.  As part of the process, the specialist designs, configures, migrates and implements the IBM solution.
Test information:
• Number of questions: 84
• Time allowed in minutes: 120
• Required passing score: 61%
• Test languages: English, French, Italian, Japanese, Spanish

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1. You have three temporary tablespace groups named G1, G2, and G3 in your database.
You are creating a new temporary tablespace as follows:
CREATE TEMPORARY TABLESPACE TEMP1 TEMPFILE '/u1/data/temp1.dbf' SIZE 10M TABLESPACE GROUP '';
Which statement regarding the above command is correct?
A.It will create the tablespace TEMP1 in group G1.
B.It will create the tablespace TEMP1 in group G3.
C.It will not add the tablespace TEMP1 to any group.
D.It will create the tablespace TEMP1 in the default group.
E.It will throw an error with message 'specified group is not available'.
F.It will create a new group with a system-generated name and add the tablespace TEMP1 to it.
Answer: C
2. You want to perform the database backup when user activity on your system is low, such as between 12:00 a.m. and 2:00 a.m.
Which command terminates with an error if the backup is not complete at the end of the specified duration?
A.RMAN> BACKUP DURATION 2:00 MINIMIZE LOAD DATABASE;
B.RMAN> BACKUP DURATION 2:00 PARTIAL FILESPERSET 1 DATABASE;
C.RMAN> BACKUP DURATION 2:00 PARTIAL MINIMIZE TIME DATABASE;
D.RMAN> BACKUP AS COPY DURATION 2:00 PARTIAL MINIMIZE LOAD DATABASE;
Answer: A
3. Which two statements regarding the FLASHBACK_TRANSACTION_QUERY view are correct? (Choose two.)
A.You can find information about only active transactions from the view.
B.You can find information about read only transactions from the view.
C.You require the SELECT ANY TRANSACTION system privilege to access the view.
D.You can find information about both active and committed transactions from the view.
E.You require the SELECT ON FLASHBACK_TRANSACTION_QUERY object privilege to access the view.
Answer: CD
4. You have three production databases, HRDB, FINDB, and ORGDB, that use the same ASM instance. At the end of the day, you execute the following command on the ASM instance to shut down:
SQL> shutdown immediate;
What is the result of executing this command?
A.All the instances, including the ASM instance, are shut down in the ABORT mode.
B.The ASM instance is shut down, but the other instances are still running.
C.The ASM instance is still functional, but the other instances are shut down.
D.All the instances, including the ASM instance, are shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode.
E.HRDB, FINDB, and ORGDB instances are shut down in the ABORT mode and the ASM instance is shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode.
F.HRDB, FINDB, and ORGDB instances are shut down in the NORMAL mode and the ASM instance is shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode.
Answer: D
5. Which two statements regarding the Policy Framework in Enterprise Manager (EM) are correct? (Choose two.)
A.Policy violations are prioritized as High, Medium, or Informational by category.
B.Policies can be disabled completely, or flagged as ignored, for the specified target.
C.Policies can be flagged as ignored, but never completely disabled, for the specified target.
D.Policy violations must be corrected, otherwise the database will shut down until corrective action occurs.
Answer: AB

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Actual 642-892 exam materials in Testinside

IT Certifications offered by Cisco have international value and acceptance. Like other world-known certifications, Cisco has also an extensive range of its IT certifications. People all over the world like to opt for these certifications to make their careers more strengthened and successful. Cisco Exam 642-892 is among those popular It Certifications which are the dream of all ambitious IT professionals. It requires a thorough preparation on the part of the candidates so that they may obtain maximum score in Cisco Exam 642-892 and make their profiles compatible to market requirements. Owing to its great popularity, you can find a lot of helping material for your preparation.

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HP HP0-815 Exam Demos in testinside

HP0-815 exam Demos

1. You are replicating data over long distances using 1 Gbps B-series (Brocade) fabric switches. Extended fabrics (increased buffer-to-buffer credits) should be used when the minimum distance exceeds _____ km.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 35
Answer: A

2. Why do customers want to extend the SAN?
A. to make SANs more manageable
B. to scale SANs with more switches
C. to increase the speed of data transport
D. to connect geographically distributed data centers
Answer: D

3. You are using 2 Gb switches connected in a dual ring topology with two ISLs. What is the maximum cross-sectional bandwidth?
A. 200 Mbyte/sec
B. 350 Mbyte/sec
C. 400 Mbyte/sec
D. 800 Mbyte/sec
Answer: D

4. A customer has implemented a multi-switch core-edge fabric with B- series (Brocade) 2 Gbps fabric switches. How can the SAN administrator back up the SAN configuration data every time a change is made to the SAN? (Choose two.)
A. download the switch and zoning configurations with the Fabric Manager
B. use a Telnet session with FTP to download the switch and zoning information
C. download the switch and zoning configurations with the High Availability Fabric Manager
D. Switch configuration and zoning configuration are automatically saved to a pre-defined location before a change is applied to either a switch
or the fabric.
Answer: AB

5. What is a design property of the Core+Edge+Leaf SAN topology?
A. It allows many devices to share a single ISL.
B. It allows many hosts to share a single storage port.
C. It can start at one switch and grow almost without limit.
D. It involves simplex I/O, meaning only one path is utilized for I/O.
Answer: C

Other hot exams:9A0-042 Exam and HP0-J23 Exam and HP0-914 Exam

 

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70-291 Exam

1. You are the network administrator for your company. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The domain contains 35 Windows Server 2003 computers; 3,000 Windows XP Professional computers; and 2,000 Windows 2000 Professional computers.  Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) is installed on a server named Server1. The necessary Group Policy object (GPO) is configured.
You need to confirm whether all computers in the domain have received all approved updates from Server1.
What should you do on Server1?
A. Install and configure Urlscan.exe.
B. At the command prompt, type gpresult /scope COMPUTER.
C. Open the WSUS console. Run the Status of Computers report.
D. Open the WSUS console. Run the Synchronization Results report.
Answer: C

2. You are the network administrator for your company. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2003. All client computers run Windows XP Professional.
You need to implement a new software update infrastructure. You discover that security patches, critical updates, and service packs have never been installed on any client computer on the network.
You install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) on a Windows Server 2003 computer named Server5. You synchronize and approve all of the current security patches, critical updates, and service packs.
You need to ensure that all client computers receive all Microsoft security patches, critical updates, and service packs.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Open the WSUS console. Select the option to automatically approve WSUS updates.
B. Install the Automatic Updates client on all client computers.
C. Modify the Microsoft Update settings of the Default Domain Controller organizational unit (OU) Group Policy object (GPO) to point client computers to http ://server5.
D. Modify the Microsoft Update settings of the Default Domain Policy Group Policy object (GPO) to point client computers to http: //server5.
E. Open the WSUS console. Create a target group and assign all client computers to the group.
Answer: BD

3. You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). Windows Firewall allows the following ports on Server1:
•53
•110
•135
You plan to install a monitoring server on the network.
You need to ensure that the monitoring server can use Server1 to relay e-mail messages.
You install the SMTP service on Server1.
What should you do next?
A. Install SNMP.
B. Install the POP3 service.
C. Create an exception for TCP port 21 in Windows Firewall.
D. Create an exception for TCP port 25 in Windows Firewall.
Answer: D

4. You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
On Server1, you install an application that runs as a service named App1. App1 will save files to a file share on Server2.
You perform the following actions:
•Create a domain account named App1Service.
•Set the password for App1Service.
•Create a file share on Server2.
•Grant App1Service the Allow - Change share permission.
You need to ensure that App1 can save files to the share on Server2.
What should you do?
A. From the Services snap-in, configure the Log On settings.
B. From the Services snap-in, configure the Recovery settings.
C. From Local Security Policy, disable the Network access: Shares that can be accessed anonymously setting.
D. From Local Security Policy, disable the Network access: Let Everyone permissions apply to anonymous users setting.
Answer: A

Other hot exams:HP0-058 Exam and 642-975 Exam and 0B0-108 Exam 1Y0-740 Exam

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Your best choice HP0-M22 Exam in TestInside

HP0-M22 Exam

1. Which application in Service Manager is associated with ITIL v2 Definitive Software Library (DSL)?
A. Project Management
B. Release Management
C. Problem Management
D. Service Lifecycle Management
Answer: B
2. Where are RDBMS permissions controlled?
A. in LDAP
B. in the RDBMS
C. in the Service Manager client
D. in the Service Manager server
Answer: B
3. For what is Service Manager considered an authoritative source?
A. contact data
B. location data
C. incident data
D. email addresses
Answer: C
4. Which application in Service Manager stores ITIL's configuration items?
A. Incident Management
B. Change Management
C. Release Management
D. Configuration Management
Answer: D
5. Where are Service Manager localized notifications set up?
A. rules wizard
B. macro engine
C. message class
D. notification engine
Answer: D
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My ssecret to pass HP0-517 Exam

HP0-517 Exam

1. What is the minimally supported version of Microsoft Windows on HP Integrity servers?
A. Microsoft Windows 2000 Data Center
B. Microsoft Windows 2003 Professional
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition
D. Microsoft Windows XP
Answer: C

2. Your customer purchases a 2-processor HP Integrity server.  All the hardware tests out successfully, so you begin to install Linux Red Hat Enterprise Server 3.0, 64-bit. Using the customer's text-based terminal, you access the MP Shell> prompt and enter the elilo command at the fs0: prompt. What happens?
A. The partition table displays.
B. An anaconda based load of RHES 3.0 initiates.
C. A message displays indicating that elilo is not a valid command.
D. RH starts the install but appears stopped until you connect a VGA monitor.
Answer: D

3. What command from the EFI shell starts the installation of Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition on an HP Integrity server?
A. load
B. setup
C. install
D. setupldr
Answer: D

4. Which command, when issued from the MP, turns on the Locator LED?
A. ps
B. loc
C. light
D. who
Answer: B
5. What is the default serial speed of the console port on an rx2600 Integrity server?
A. 9600 baud
B. 2400 baud
C. 19200 baud
D. 38400 baud
Answer: A

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HP0-091 Exam Answers inTestInside

HP0-091 Exam Answers

1. A journaled file system intent log is used to __________.
A. store user data prior to a physical write
B. log meta data changes
C. improve buffer cache performance
D. provide an audit trail
E. track mirror transactions
Answer: B
2.What does the term available memory refer to?
A. the amount of memory on the free list
B. memory available for shared memory allocation
C. the amount of memory available after the kernel has been loaded
D. the total amount of memory that passes self-test prior to loading of the kernel
Answer: C
3.As a non-root user, which command influences the priority that a process runs at?
A. chmod
B. pri
C. usrpri
D. nice
Answer: D
4.How do you go to single-user mode on a booted system?
A. init 0
B. reboot
C. shutdown
D. shutdown -r
Answer: C
5.Which commands can be used to create device files? Select TWO.
A. mkdevice
B. insf
C. fsadm
D. mksf
E. devstart
Answer: BD

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E22-201 Exam Answers in TestInside

E22-201 Exam

1. Click the Exhibit button. 
<Missing>
You established and split a TimeFinder/Mirror BCV of your production database for use as a backup database. 
Then, you used TimeFinder/Snap to make a copy of the backup database for use as a testing database.
What is the performance impact on the backup database during the SNAP?                          
A. No Impact     
B. Variable Impact                          
C. Dependent on TimeFinder/Mirror write activity 
D. Dependent on production database write activity                          
Answer: A
2. Which answer best describes the functionality of TimeFinder/Mirror in a mainframe environment?                          
A. SYMCLI management and automation              
B. Source and BCV are independent copies                          
C. Processing against both source and pointer-based image creates performance overhead                          
D. Requires a fraction of the capacity of the source volume; amount depends on how much data changes                          
Answer: B
3. Which statement is true when using TimeFinder/Utility?                          
A. Supports catalog management, but not GDG                          
B. Supports any vendor's hardware environment            
C. Supports all IBM access methods, excluding VSAM                          
D. Does not allow use of volume data on same z/OS image                          
Answer: B
4. You need a remote replication solution for your mainframe application running on a single Symmetrix DMX. The service level for the application specifies the following in order of priority: 
 Which solution best meets these requirements?                          
A. SRDF/S - Synchronous mode                          
B. SRDF/A - Asynchronous mode                          
C. SRDF/CG - Synchronous mode with Consistency Group                           
D. SRDF/A - Asynchronous mode with Multi-session Consistency                      
Answer: C
5. Which command displays system serial number, SSID, and number of devices?                   A. DISPLAY GNS,ALL                          
B. F DISPLAY DEV,SSID=xxxx                          
C. F SCFname,CSC,REFRESH                          
D. F SCFname,DEV,DISP,SUMMARY                          
Answer: D
6. Which statement describes the TimeFinder Restore operation between a Standard and BCV device pair?                          
A. Write-disable the Standard device and copy the entire contents of the BCV to the Standard device.                          
B. Change the status of the BCV to Not Ready and copy the contents of the BCV to the Standard device.                      
C. Change the status of both the BCV and the Standard device to Not Ready until synchronization is  complete.                      
D. Copy the entire contents of the Standard device to the BCV while presenting a Read-Write Enabled status for both the Standard device and the BCV.   
Answers:B

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